M.M-100-2 mark of each question./no negative
marking.
Time: 40 Min.
Study Rotunda.
TEST 6
FLT 1
Q
1. In Shannon and weaver model level C
deals with the problem of –
A. a Tansmission
B. Effectiveness
C. Entropy
D. Connection.
Q 2. The most important limitation of information-flow theory is----
A. Message-centric
B. Source-dominance
C. Channel problem
D. Receiver-specific
Q 3.Communication role in society and social relationship was
introduced in model of-
A. Gerbner
BNewComb
C. Helix
D. Laswell
Q 4.Hub model says communication as a set of ---
A. Feedback
B.Concentric circle.
C. Social relations
D. Blocked pattern
Q 5. In ingriedients of communication model,one of the five
component of Source include—
A. Attitude
B. structure.
C. Senses
D.Treatment.
Q 6. The horizontal dimension in gerbner model denotes –
A. Access
B.Feedback
C. Noise
D. Reacts.
Q 7. Which of the following is a component of universal model of
communication--
A. Encoding
B Decoding
C Contextual factor
D.Redundancy
Q 8. Communication channel are kept open by---
A.Removing regulations
B.Proactive access
C.Phatic Communication
D.Emotive communication
Q 9. Semiology is the sudy of –
A. Sign
B Code
C.both A & B
D.None of the above
Q10. Signs and Codes operates under—
A.System
B Culture
C Authortiy
D.Regulations,
Q11.Pierce model of Sign, defines----------Relationship between
sign, object, interpretation..
A.Balance
B.Equal
C.Irregular
D.Directional.
Q12.Signification defined under the model of-----
A.C.S.Pierce
B.Saussre
C.Ogden Richard
D.laswell model
Q13. Which document describes your needed camera set-ups ?----
A.Shot list
B.Rule of Thirds
C. Script
D. Synopsis
Q 14. Analogue colors on color wheel are said to be:
a.Opposite colors
b. Adjacent colors.
c.Dramatic colors
d. both b&c.
Q 15.Sign which remembers to itself is said to be as—
A.Index
B.Icon
C.Symbol
D.Code
Q 16. “Word” is a ---
A.Icon
B.Symbol
C.Index
D.Entropy
Q17.An Arbitrory sign is -----
A.Highly motivated
B.Less motivated.
C.Unmotivated
D.interrelated.
Q 18.Match-----
List 1 List 2
Wilbur Schramm Limited
effect theory
Paul Lazaserfeld Normative
theory
Frankfurt school Attitude
change theory
Carl hovland Cultural
studies.
Codes:
A B C D
2 1 4 3
2 1 3 4
2 3 4 1
1 2 3 4
Q19.Information that is inconsistent with already held attitudes
of person creates a---
A-Cognitive consistency
B-Cignitive dissonance
C-Indirect Influence
D-Group Commitments.
Q20. Which of the following is not the feature of Transitional
media theory proposed by Chengju Huang----
A.Flexible
B.Accept change.
C.Adaptive
D.Closed minded.
Q 21. Sensational, often irresponsible journalism is identified
as------
A.Parachute Journalism
B.Yellow Journalism
C.Neo-Journalism
D.Party Press
Q 22. Theory based on empirical observation guided by the
scientific method is---
A. Post-positivist Theory
B. Hermeneutic Theory
C. Grounded Theory
D.Axiology
Q 23. Who is the author of the book, ‘Durbar’ ?----
A.Tavleen Singh
B.T.N. Ninan
C.Arun Shourie
D. Barkha Dutt
Q 24. The civil law of defamation in India is based on---
A. American common law
B French common law
C Russian common law
D English common law
Q 25 Working journalists have the right to---
A form trade unions
B defame any one
C spread rumours against celebrities
D support unfriendly countries
Q 26 Which of the following are
online advertisement methods through which advertisers attempt to drive
traffic to Internet sites ?---
A. Banner
B CPM
C SEO
D CPC
Q 27. Advertising is an activity that stands for the ideology of---
A. power politics
B. social control
C. narcissism
D. market place
Q 28. Assertion (A) : Media history will not achieve concrete status as a primary
--scholarly locus in the present day circumstances.
Reason (R) : Until it develops a
common set of problems and its own vocabulary as the term ‘media’ itself
is fluid today.------
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q29. Assertion
(A) : The global news flow has not been able to affect the news
values of the developing countries.
Reason (R) : The developing countries
have a strong cultural background and their own value system.-------
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q 30 Assertion (A) : The ‘unreal’ quality of digital information has far-reaching
effects for audiences, media companies, and the society.
Reason (R) : The digital media
information has neither physical presence nor time barriers.-----
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q 31. Assertion
(A) : Opinion polls and surveys are although valuable, are least
preferred by PR persons.
Reason (R) : These are not expensive
for routine public relations practice.--
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q 32. Find out the correct sequence
of following newspapers :---
A.India Gazette, Calcutta Gazette and Oriental Advertiser, Bengal
Journal, Bombay Herald
B. Calcutta Gazette and Oriental Advertiser, Bengal Journal,
Bombay Herald, India Gazette
C. India gazette, Bengal Journal, Bombay Herald, Calcutta Gazette
and Oriental Advertiser
D. Bombay Herald, Bengal Journal, Calcutta Gazette and Oriental
Advertiser, India Gazette
Q 33.Match the following :--
A B
De beers Heera hai sada ke liye
Skoda Its Simply clever
Ford Go furthur
Bridgestone tyres Your journey your passion
codes :
a. a(1),b(2),c(3),d(4)
b.a(1),b(3),c(2),d(4)
c.a(2),b(3),c(1),d(4)
d.a(1),b(2),c(4),d(3)
Q 34.Laggards Are the consumers that-
A.early Adopters
B.Late adopters
C.Majority Adopters
D.Resist adopters.
Q 35.In diffusion of Innovation model , the four
components that spread the new idea
include which of the following:-----
A.Social System
B.Time
C.Communication
D.All the above.
Q 36. Arrange the following in correct order of Stages
of crises..
A.
Warning stage-----Point of no return-------Cleanup stage---------when things
return to normal.
B.Clean
up stage-----Warning stage---when things return to normal---Point of no return.
C.Warning
stage----Point of no return---when things return to normal----clean up stage.
D.Warning
stage---Point of no return----clean up stage---when things return to normal.
Q37.Freedom
of press in india is govern under
A.No
law
B.RTI
act
C.Article
19 of constitution
D.Defence
of India act.
Q
38.Many voices one world, is related to—
A.
Hutchins commission
B.Chanda
Kochhar comt.
C.World
Press Association
D.Mac
Bride Commission
Q 39.
Chairman of first Press Commission of india-
A.Just.
J.S.rajadhyaksha.
B.C. chandramouli.
C.Chanda
kochhar
D.Justice.
J.S.Khehar.
Q 40. Identify the chronological sequence of following AIR broadcasts :
A.Vividh Bharathi, School broadcasts, External services, Rural
broadcasts
B.School broadcasts, Rural
broadcasts, Vividh Bharathi, External services
C.External services, Vividh Bharathi, Rural broadcasts, School
broadcasts
D.Rural broadcasts, External
services, School broadcasts, Vividh Bharathi.
Q41.In Printing Colors are created by :
a.CMYR
b.CMYK
c.CMYB
d.RGYB
Q 42. Write the correct chronological order of the following social
media platforms :-
A.Linkedin, facebook, youtube, twitter
B facebook, youtube, twitter, Linkedin
C youtube, twitter, Linkedin, facebook
D twitter, Linkedin, facebook, youtube
Q
43. A research paper
is a brief report of research work based on
(A) Primary Data only
(B) Secondary Data only
(C) Both Primary and Secondary Data
(D) None of the above
(A) Statement of Objectives
(B) Analysis of Data
(C) Selection of Research Tools
(D) Collection of Data
Q 45. Chanda Kochhar is associated with
A.Press Commission
B.Press Committee
C.Mac Bride Commission
D.Public Relation.
Question 46-50 based on
comprehensive passage.(courtesy )
Brands have been around since ancient times. In 3000 BC, in
Ancient Egypt, symbols were used to identify the bricks leading to pharaoh
tombs; in 2000 BC, in ancient Palestine, signs were employed to
distinguish pottery. The word brand comes from the Old Norse word brandr
(North Germanic language of the Scandinavian peoples prior to 1350 AD) which
means ‘to burn’ or, more specifically, to mark livestock. According to a
widely accepted definition, a brand is a name, term, sign, symbol, or
design, or a combination of these elements intended to identify and
differentiate a product in the minds of concerned subjects. According to
this definition, there are four ingredients which characterize a brand.
Firstly, a brandconsists
of names, symbols, designs, or any other feature, which
constitute its brand elements. These brand elements refer to the logotype,
packaging and other tangible constituent parts of a product. Secondly,
brands identify and differentiate a branded product, both roles being the
fundamental functions of a brand. A brand identifies the goods and
services of a seller and attests the product’s source. dentification
is objective; it relies only on the capacity of names, symbols, designs
and any other external cue to describe or insinuate where the offering comes
from. Other than the purpose of identification, a brand differentiates the
seller’s offering from that of competitors. Contrary to identification,
differentiation is subjective and depends on consumers’ perceptions,
attitudes and behaviour towards the brand. Differentiation does not occur
just because the name or logotype on a product is distinct from that of
competitors; differentiation implies that consumers perceive differences
among brands in a product category. Therefore, it is possible that a brand
name or logotype identifies a product but does not differentiate it
from competitors. For example, brand name mentions product categories such
as writing pads, rubbers, felt tip pens, markers and photocopy paper,
where brands, despite having distinctive brand elements, do not
differentiate. Hence, brand elements per se do not differentiate. In
short, both functions are necessary and only when a brand identifies and
differentiates a product is it possible to talk about a branded product.
Thirdly, brands involve products. Products, in a wide sense, refer not
only to physical goods and services, but also to experiences, retailers
and distributors, events, people, geographical locations, properties,
organizations, information and ideas. Hence, almost everything can be
branded, as some well-known branding cases confirm. For example, a number
of physical goods, once considered commodities, have been
successfully branded in recent years. Also ‘products’ such as sports,
political candidates and religions are actively branded today. Lastly, a
brand’s identification and differentiation functions occur in the minds of
the subjects concerned. A brand is thus ultimately something that resides in
the subject’s memory.
46. What is the intended use of a brand ?
(1) To burn every product
(2) To purchase livestock
(3) To employ distinguished potters
(4) To differentiate the product in the minds of consumers
47. What purpose does the brand serve ?
(1) To identify the product’s source
(2) To create more brands in the market.
(3) To increase more marketing channels.
(4) To give good names to products.
48. What can brands do other than identification ?
(1) They offer free gifts.
(2) They are an attractive logotypes.
(3) They solicit frequent sellers.
(4) They differentiate the selling price of one brand to another.
49. What is the advantage of a brand ?
(1) Provides information and ideas.
(2) Provides disinformation about a product.
(3) Encourages relationship between sellers and retailers.
(4) Prompts impulsive buying.
50. What is the ultimate purpose of a brand ?
(1) It resides in subject’s memory.
(2) It encourages creative ideas.
(3) It decides the future of political candidates.
(4) It drives people into depression.
Answer Key : 1(b), 2(b), 3(b), 4(d), 5(a), 6(a),7(c),8(c),9(c),10(b)
11(b),12(b),13(a),14(b),15(b),16(b),17(c),18(a),19(b),20(d)
21(b),22(a),23(a),24(d),25(a),26(c),27(d),28(a),29(d),30(a)
31(c),32(a),33(a),34(d),35(d),36(a),37(c)38(d),39(a)40(d)
41(b),42(a),43(c),44(d),45(b),46(d),47(a),48(d),49(a),50(a).
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